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Exam Code : ACNP-BC
Exam Name : ANCC Acute Care Nurse Practitioner Certification
Vendor Name :
"Nursing"

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Question: 1

Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for evaluating suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

1. Chest X-ray

2. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

3. D-dimer blood test

4. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
   
   Answer: C

Explanation: The most appropriate diagnostic test for evaluating suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the D-dimer blood test. D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product that is elevated in the presence of thrombosis. A positive

D-dimer result can support the diagnosis of DVT, but further imaging tests are typically required to confirm the diagnosis. Chest X-ray (A) and electrocardiogram (ECG) (B) are not specific for DVT and are more useful in evaluating other conditions such as pulmonary embolism or cardiac abnormalities. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) can be used to visualize blood vessels and diagnose DVT, but it is not typically the initial diagnostic test of choice.

Question: 2

Which of the following is an example of a quality improvement process in healthcare?

1. Conducting a research study

2. Implementing evidence-based practice guidelines

3. Monitoring patient satisfaction surveys

4. Providing continuing education for healthcare professionals

Answer: C

Explanation: Monitoring patient satisfaction surveys is an example of a quality improvement process in healthcare. It involves collecting feedback from patients to assess their experiences, identify areas for improvement, and make changes to enhance the quality of care. Conducting a research study (A) and implementing evidence-based practice guidelines (B) can contribute to quality improvement but are not specific to the process itself. Providing continuing education for healthcare professionals (D) is important for maintaining competency but is not solely focused on quality improvement.

Question: 3

Which of the following medications is a direct thrombin inhibitor?

1. Warfarin

2. Rivaroxaban

3. Dabigatran

4. Clopidogrel
   
   Answer: C

Explanation: Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It acts by binding to thrombin and preventing its conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, thereby inhibiting the formation of blood clots. Warfarin (A) is a vitamin K antagonist, while rivaroxaban (B) is a factor Xa inhibitor. Clopidogrel (D) is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking the P2Y12 ADP receptor.

Question: 4

Which of the following factors should be considered when conducting a risk stratification in vulnerable populations?

1. Socioeconomic status

2. Genetic predisposition

3. Environmental exposures

4. All of the above
   
   Answer: D

Explanation: When conducting risk stratification in vulnerable populations, it is important to consider multiple factors, including socioeconomic status, genetic predisposition, and environmental exposures. Vulnerable populations may have unique risk profiles and disparities that require comprehensive assessment and intervention. Considering all of these factors (A, B, and C) helps in developing a holistic understanding of the risks and tailoring appropriate interventions.

Question: 5

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a standardized assessment tool in clinical practice?

1. To ensure cost-effective care

2. To assess psychosocial factors

3. To measure health promotion and disease prevention

4. To provide consistent and objective data collection
   
   Answer: D

Explanation: The purpose of a standardized assessment tool in clinical practice is to provide consistent and objective data collection. These tools help healthcare providers gather information in a systematic manner, ensuring that the same parameters are assessed for all patients. This promotes consistency in data collection and allows for reliable comparisons and evaluations. Standardized assessment tools do not specifically address cost-effective care (A), psychosocial factors (B), or health promotion and disease prevention (C).

Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is primarily responsible for the development of pulmonary edema in acute heart failure?

1. Increased capillary permeability

2. Increased systemic vascular resistance

3. Decreased cardiac output

4. Impaired sodium reabsorption in the renal tubules
   
   Answer: A

Explanation: Pulmonary edema in acute heart failure is primarily caused by increased capillary permeability. In this condition, fluid leaks from the pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli, leading to impaired gas exchange and respiratory distress. Increased systemic vascular resistance (B) can contribute to increased afterload and exacerbate heart failure, but it is not the primary mechanism for pulmonary edema. Decreased cardiac output (C) can lead to fluid retention and contribute to heart failure, but it is not the direct cause of pulmonary edema. Impaired sodium reabsorption in the renal tubules (D) can result in fluid overload, but it is not the primary mechanism for the development of pulmonary edema in acute heart failure.

Question: 7

Which of the following interventions is considered a non-pharmacologic treatment for chronic pain?

1. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

2. Opioid analgesics

3. Physical therapy

4. Corticosteroids

Explanation: Physical therapy is considered a non-pharmacologic treatment for chronic pain. It involves the use of various physical modalities, exercises, and techniques to manage pain, improve function, and promote rehabilitation. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (A), opioid analgesics (B), and corticosteroids (D) are pharmacologic interventions commonly used for pain management.

Question: 8

Which of the following is the first indication of diabetic nephropathy in patients with diabetes mellitus?

1. Increased creatinine

2. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

3. Microalbuminuria

4. Macroalbuminuria
   
   Answer: C

Explanation: Microalbuminuria refers to the presence of small amounts of albumin in the urine and is considered the earliest sign of diabetic nephropathy in patients with diabetes mellitus. It is typically detected before there is significant impairment in renal function. Increased creatinine (A) and increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (B) are indicators of impaired renal function, but they occur at a later stage of diabetic nephropathy. Macroalbuminuria (D) is characterized by the presence of large amounts of albumin in the urine, indicating more advanced kidney damage.

Question: 9

1. The ability to understand and interpret medical jargon

2. The ability to access healthcare services

3. The ability to understand and use health information to make informed decisions

4. The ability to navigate the healthcare system and advocate for one's own health

Answer: C

Explanation: Health literacy refers to the ability to understand and use health information to make informed decisions about one's health. It involves the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions. While understanding and interpreting medical jargon (A) and accessing healthcare services (B) are important aspects of health literacy, the core concept is the ability to comprehend and use health information effectively. Navigating the healthcare system and advocating for one's own health (D) is related to health literacy but is not its sole definition.

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