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CBUNA-CUNP : CBUNA Certified Urologic Nurse Practitioner Exam
Nursing CBUNA-CUNP Questions & Answers
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CBUNA Certified Urologic Nurse Practitioner
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Question: 1000
year-old male presents with penile discharge. Nucleic acid amplification testing reveals Chla matis. Which of the following should be included in his treatment regimen?
thromycin triaxone xycycline tronidazole
er: A
nation: Azithromycin is effective for treating uncomplicated Chlamydia infections.
ion: 1001
year-old male presents with difficulty urinating and a history of recurrent urinary tract infecti an reveals a 2 cm prostate mass. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
tchful waiting
erral for radiation therapy
iation of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors state biopsy
er: D
nation: Given the prostate mass and urinary symptoms, a biopsy is necessary to determine if
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Question: 1002
During a case discussion regarding a patient with prostate cancer, what is the most effective way for a urologic nurse practitioner to present their findings?
By solely focusing on their diagnostic conclusions
By avoiding discussion of the patient's psychosocial aspects
By presenting data in a disorganized manner
By integrating clinical findings with patient-reported outcomes and preferences Answer: D
Explanation: Integrating clinical findings with patient-reported outcomes and preferences allows for a more patient-centered approach that can influence treatment decisions.
Question: 1003
rates dalafil denafil rdenafil
er: A
nation: Nitrates are contraindicated in patients taking phosphodiesterase inhibitors due to the hypotension.
ion: 1004
ear-old girl presents with enuresis and abdominal pain. Upon further evaluation, a renal ultra hydronephrosis. What is the most likely cause of her enuresis?
dder overactivity due to pain
structive uropathy due to a structural anomaly chosocial factors due to pain
urological cause related to hydronephrosis er: B
nation: Hydronephrosis suggests an obstructive uropathy, which can lead to urinary retention uently cause enuresis.
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Question: 1005
A 42-year-old male presents with sudden onset flank pain and hematuria after lifting heavy weights. A CT scan shows a renal hematoma but no laceration. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Bed rest and observation
Immediate nephrectomy
Angiographic embolization
Open surgical intervention Answer: A
Explanation: In cases of renal hematoma without laceration and with stable vital signs, bed rest and observation are typically sufficient for management.
Question: 1006
cusing only on curative options
erring to oncologists without input from the patient
uring that all team members are aware of the treatment options derstanding the patient’s values and preferences for end-of-life care
er: D
nation: Understanding the patient’s values and preferences is crucial in guiding palliative car sions and ensuring that their needs are met during treatment.
ion: 1007
of the following factors is a significant prognostic indicator for patients with non-muscle in cancer following TURBT?
mor grade and number of lesions ient age at diagnosis
sence of hematuria at presentation tory of smoking
er: A
nation: Tumor grade and the number of lesions are significant prognostic factors that help pre ence and progression in non-muscle invasive bladder cancer.
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Question: 1008
A 62-year-old female patient presents with urinary urgency, frequency, and pelvic pain. She reports that symptoms worsen during her menstrual cycle. What diagnosis should be considered?
Radiation-induced cystitis
Acute cystitis
Interstitial cystitis
Chronic pyelonephritis
Answer: C
Explanation: The cyclical nature of symptoms in relation to the menstrual cycle is suggestive of interstitial cystitis, often exacerbated by hormonal changes.
Question: 1009
A patient presents to the clinic with prolonged erections and is diagnosed with ischemic priapism. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
ply cold compresses
form cavernosal aspiration iate oral PDE5 inhibitors
minister systemic anticoagulation er: B
nation: Cavernosal aspiration is a critical intervention for ischemic priapism to relieve the ged erection and prevent complications, often leading to tissue damage.
ion: 1010
atient who has undergone a ureteroscopy, which of the following post-operative assessment the nurse prioritize to identify potential complications early?
sessing urine output and color nitoring vital signs every four hours aluating the surgical site for drainage
ecking the patient's pain level regularly er: A
nation: Assessing urine output and color post-ureteroscopy is critical to detect any potential ications such as obstruction or bleeding.
Ap Per Init Ad Answ Expla prolon For a p s should As Mo Ev Ch Answ Expla compl A 50-year-old male with persistent hematuria undergoes a workup. A renal biopsy reveals dysplasia. What does this finding suggest? Benign process Infection Increased cancer risk Inflammatory condition Answer: C Explanation: Dysplasia in a renal biopsy is indicative of a precancerous process, suggesting an increased risk for renal cell carcinoma. A 34-year-old male presents with acute flank pain and is found to have a 5 mm stone in the renal pelvis. He reports nausea and vomiting. What is the most appropriate acute management for this patient? racorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) mediate nephrectomy management and hydration er: D nation: In acute management, pain control and hydration are essential for facilitating stone pa or ureteroscopy can be considered if symptoms persist or worsen. year-old male presents with urinary urgency and frequency. An ultrasound reveals a 70-gram e. What is the best first-line treatment option? tchful waiting lpha-reductase inhibitors ha-blockers gical intervention er: C nation: Alpha-blockers are the first-line treatment for managing urinary symptoms in patients roviding quick symptom relief. Ureteroscopy Ext Im Pain Answ Expla ssage; ESWL A 59- prostat Wa 5-a Alp Sur Answ Expla with BPH, p In a situation where a urologic nurse practitioner is asked for a second opinion on a patient diagnosed with complex urolithiasis, which approach should they adopt? They should immediately suggest surgical intervention. They should rely solely on the previous physician's notes. They should thoroughly review imaging studies and the patient's symptoms. They should ask the patient to wait for further testing before giving an opinion. Answer: C Explanation: A thorough review of imaging studies and the patient's symptoms is essential for forming an informed and accurate second opinion. During a well-child visit, a 4-year-old girl exhibits signs of urinary incontinence and recurrent UTIs. Upon further evaluation, VUR is diagnosed. Which of the following is a potential long-term consequence of untreated VUR? velopment of hypertension uresis gressive renal damage er: D nation: Untreated VUR can lead to progressive renal damage due to recurrent infections and opathy, potentially resulting in long-term renal impairment. a routine follow-up, a 70-year-old male with BPH reports worsening urinary stream and in ia. A post-void residual volume is measured at 600 mL. What intervention should be consid servation and lifestyle modifications iation of combination therapy with alpha-blockers and 5-alpha reductase inhibitors gical intervention odynamic studies er: B nation: Given the significant post-void residual volume, combination therapy can help manag symptoms and improve urinary flow. Acute kidney injury De En Pro Answ Expla reflux nephr During creased noctur ered next? Ob Init Sur Ur Answ Expla e severe In a scenario where a patient with a complex medical history presents with urological issues, what is the best approach for the urologic nurse practitioner? To focus on the current urological symptoms without considering the medical history To immediately refer the patient to another specialist without assessment To rely on previous notes without verifying the current status To conduct a holistic assessment that integrates the patient’s entire medical history Answer: D Explanation: A holistic assessment that considers the entire medical history is vital for understanding the context of the urological issues and guiding appropriate treatment. A 52-year-old male presents with erectile dysfunction and a history of prostate cancer treated with radiation. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his erectile dysfunction? scular damage from radiation rmonal therapy urogenic causes er: B nation: Radiation therapy can cause vascular damage, leading to erectile dysfunction in prost survivors. Psychological factors Va Ho Ne Answ Expla ate cancer
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Question: 1018
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