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Exam Code : RNAS-C
Exam Name : NASC Registered Nurse Assistant at Surgery - Certified
Vendor Name :
"Nursing"

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Question: 1

When assisting with an abdominal hysterectomy, the RNAS-C will place rectus fascia while the surgeon separates the rectus abdominis muscle.

1. Heaney hysterectomy forceps.

2. Russian tissue forceps.

3. Kelly clamps.

4. Kocher clamps.
   
   Answer: D

Explanation: Kocher clamps are commonly used to assist in separating the rectus abdominis muscle during an abdominal hysterectomy. The rectus fascia is placed by the RNAS-C to provide support and reinforcement during the procedure. Option A, Heaney hysterectomy forceps, is not specifically used for separating the rectus abdominis muscle. Option B, Russian tissue forceps, and option C, Kelly clamps, are not typically involved in this step of the procedure.

Question: 2

Which of the following laboratory tests is commonly used to assess coagulation function?

1. Blood glucose

2. Prothrombin time (PT)

3. Complete blood count (CBC)

4. Serum electrolytes
   
   Answer: B

Explanation: Prothrombin time (PT) is a commonly used laboratory test to

assess coagulation function. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and evaluates the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. PT is often used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, such as with warfarin. Options A, C, and D are not specific to coagulation function.

Question: 3

Which of the following positions is commonly used in neurosurgical procedures to access the posterior cranial fossa?

1. Supine position

2. Trendelenburg position

3. Sitting position

4. Prone position
   
   Answer: D

Explanation: The prone position is commonly used in neurosurgical procedures to access the posterior cranial fossa. In the prone position, the patient lies face down, allowing optimal access to the back of the head and neck. This position provides better visualization and access to the surgical site in procedures involving the posterior cranial fossa. Options A, B, and C are not specifically associated with accessing the posterior cranial fossa in neurosurgical procedures.

Question: 4

Compared to electrocautery dissection, the use of the harmonic scalpel typically results in:

1. more thermal injury.

2. less thermal injury.

3. less precise cuts.

4. longer operative procedures.
   
   Answer: B

Explanation: The use of the harmonic scalpel in surgical dissection typically results in less thermal injury compared to electrocautery. The harmonic scalpel utilizes ultrasonic energy to simultaneously cut and coagulate tissues, minimizing thermal damage to surrounding structures. This precision reduces the risk of collateral tissue damage and promotes quicker healing. Option A is incorrect because the harmonic scalpel is designed to minimize thermal injury. Option C is incorrect because the harmonic scalpel allows for precise cuts. Option D is incorrect because the use of the harmonic scalpel is often associated with shorter operative times due to its efficiency and effectiveness.

Question: 5

Which of the following is a radiological exam used to visualize the blood vessels?

1. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

2. Computed tomography (CT) scan

3. Ultrasound

4. Angiography
   
   Answer: D

Explanation: Angiography is a radiological exam used to visualize the blood vessels. It involves the injection of a contrast agent into the blood vessels, followed by X-ray imaging to visualize the flow of blood through the vessels. Options A, B, and C are imaging techniques but are not specifically used to visualize blood vessels in the same manner as angiography.

Question: 6

Which of the following laboratory tests measures the ability of blood to clot?

1. Complete blood count (CBC)

2. Prothrombin time (PT)

3. Blood glucose

4. Liver function tests (LFTs)
   
   Answer: B

Explanation: Prothrombin time (PT) is a laboratory test that measures the ability of blood to clot. It evaluates the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, such as with warfarin. A prolonged PT indicates impaired clotting function and an increased risk of bleeding. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to clotting function.

Question: 7

According to the Munro Pressure Risk Assessment Scale, which is used in each phase of surgery (preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative), which of the following poses the greatest risk for pressure ulcer development?

1. A 10% decrease in blood pressure (BP).

2. A 25% weight loss in the previous 30 days or a 210% weight loss in the previous 180 days.

3. Temperature of 38 °C, with a fluctuation of 1 °C.

4. A 15% decrease in BP.

Explanation: According to the Munro Pressure Risk Assessment Scale, a 25% weight loss in the previous 30 days or a 210% weight loss in the previous 180 days poses the greatest risk for pressure ulcer development. This significant weight loss indicates malnutrition and increased vulnerability to pressure ulcers. Malnutrition compromises tissue integrity and impairs the body's ability to heal, making the patient more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Monitoring and addressing nutritional needs are crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in surgical patients. Options A, C, and D do not specifically indicate a high risk for pressure ulcer development.

Question: 8

Which of the following legal concepts refers to negligence or improper conduct by a healthcare professional that results in harm to a patient?

1. Informed consent

2. Scope of practice

3. Malpractice

4. Workplace Safety
   
   Answer: C

Explanation: Malpractice refers to negligence or improper conduct by a healthcare professional that results in harm to a patient. It involves a breach of the standard of care expected from a healthcare provider, leading to injuries, complications, or adverse outcomes. Malpractice can occur in various healthcare settings, including perioperative practice. Options A, B, and D are not specifically related to negligence or improper conduct.

Which of the following laboratory tests is used to assess liver function?

1. Complete blood count (CBC)

2. Prothrombin time (PT)

3. Alanine transaminase (ALT)

4. Serum electrolytes
   
   Answer: C

Explanation: Alanine transaminase (ALT) is a laboratory test used to assess liver function. ALT is an enzyme primarily found in the liver, and elevated levels of ALT in the blood may indicate liver damage or disease. Options A and D are not specific to liver function, while option B, prothrombin time (PT), measures the blood's ability to clot and is not directly related to liver function.

Question: 10

Which of the following positioning devices is commonly used for lithotomy position during surgery?

1. Fracture table

2. Stirrups

3. Trendelenburg position

4. Reverse Trendelenburg position
   
   Answer: B

Explanation: Stirrups are commonly used as positioning devices for the lithotomy position during surgery. The lithotomy position involves the patient lying on their back with their legs flexed and supported in stirrups, allowing access to the pelvic region. Stirrups help maintain the desired position and provide stability throughout the surgical procedure. Options A, C, and D are not specifically associated with the lithotomy position.

Question: 11

Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for causing Methicillin- resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection?

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae

2. Escherichia coli

3. Clostridium difficile

4. Staphylococcus aureus
   
   Answer: D

Explanation: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection is caused by the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus. MRSA is a strain of Staphylococcus aureus that has developed resistance to multiple antibiotics, including methicillin. It is commonly found in healthcare settings and can cause severe infections, particularly in individuals with weakened immune systems. Options A, B, and C are not associated with MRSA infection.

Question: 12

Which of the following is an example of a transmission-based precaution?

1. Hand hygiene

2. Standard precautions

3. Contact precautions

4. Proper disposal of sharps
   
   Answer: C

Explanation: Contact precautions are an example of transmission-based precautions. Contact precautions are implemented to prevent the transmission

of infectious agents through direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. This may include the use of gloves and gowns when entering the patient's room and adherence to specific protocols for handling contaminated items. Option A, hand hygiene, and option B, standard precautions, are important infection prevention measures but are not specific to transmission- based precautions. Option D, proper disposal of sharps, is related to safe disposal practices but does not pertain to transmission-based precautions.

Question: 13

Which of the following medications is commonly used as a local anesthetic during surgical procedures?

1. Bacitracin

2. Cefazolin

3. Lidocaine

4. Heparin
   
   Answer: C

Explanation: Lidocaine is a commonly used local anesthetic medication during surgical procedures. It works by blocking nerve signals in a specific area, numbing the region and providing localized pain relief. Bacitracin (option A) and cefazolin (option B) are antibiotics, while heparin (option D) is an anticoagulant medication.

Question: 14

Which of the following positions is commonly used during a lumbar puncture?

1. Trendelenburg position

2. Supine position

3. Lateral position

4. Sitting position
   
   Answer: D

Explanation: The sitting position is commonly used during a lumbar puncture procedure. In this position, the patient sits upright with their legs over the edge of the examination table and their spine flexed forward. This position helps to open up the spaces between the vertebrae and facilitates the insertion of the needle into the subarachnoid space for cerebrospinal fluid collection. Options A, B, and C are not specifically associated with lumbar puncture.

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