CV-BC : ANCC (CV-BC) Cardiac Vascular Nursing Certification Exam

ANCC (CV-BC) Cardiac Vascular Nursing Certification
Question: 696
Which of the following is a function of the respiratory system?
A. Production of digestive enzymes
B. Regulation of body temperature
C. Exchange of gases between the air and blood
D. Detoxification of harmful substances
Answer: C
Explanation: The exchange of gases between the air and blood is a function of the respiratory system. The respiratory system is responsible for the intake of oxygen and the removal of carbon dioxide from the body. This exchange of gases occurs in the lungs, where oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses into the bloodstream, and carbon dioxide produced by cellular metabolism is expelled from the body. The production of digestive enzymes is primarily carried out by the digestive system, regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by the thermoregulatory system, and detoxification of harmful substances is primarily performed by the liver and kidneys.
Question: 697
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of infective endocarditis?
A. Osler's nodes
B. Reed-Sternberg cells
C. Heberden's nodes
D. Charcot-Leyden crystals
Answer: A
Explanation: Osler's nodes are a characteristic clinical feature of infective endocarditis, which is an infection of the endocardium (inner lining) of the heart. Osler's nodes are tender, subcutaneous nodules typically found on the fingers or toes. They are caused by immune complex deposition in the blood vessels and are considered one of the major criteria in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis. Reed-Sternberg cells are associated with Hodgkin's lymphoma, Heberden's nodes are seen in osteoarthritis, and Charcot-Leyden crystals are linked to conditions such as asthma and parasitic infections.
Question: 698
A patient with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following potential adverse effects of this medication?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: D
Explanation: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate). The nurse should monitor the patient's heart rate regularly while on metoprolol therapy and report any significant changes to the healthcare provider.
Question: 699
A patient is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization procedure. The nurse explains to the patient that the purpose of the procedure is:
A. To assess the electrical conduction of the heart
B. To evaluate the pumping function of the heart
C. To measure the oxygen saturation in the blood
D. To visualize the coronary arteries and blood flow
Answer: D
Explanation: The purpose of a cardiac catheterization procedure is to visualize the coronary arteries and blood flow. During a cardiac catheterization, a catheter is inserted into a bloodvessel and advanced to the heart. Contrast dye is injected, allowing visualization of the coronary arteries and identification of any blockages or narrowing. Electrical conduction of the heart is assessed through an electrocardiogram (ECG). The pumping function of the heart can be evaluated through an echocardiogram or a nuclear stress test. Oxygen saturation in the blood can be measured through pulse oximetry or arterial blood gas analysis.
Question: 700
A patient with unstable angina is prescribed dual antiplatelet therapy. Which of the following medication combinations is commonly used for dual antiplatelet therapy?
A. Aspirin and clopidogrel
B. Warfarin and heparin
C. Enoxaparin and ticagrelor
D. Dabigatran and prasugrel
Answer: A
Explanation: Aspirin and clopidogrel are commonly used for dual antiplatelet therapy in patients with unstable angina. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, while clopidogrel blocks the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets, further reducing platelet activation and aggregation. Dual antiplatelet therapy is often used to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with acute coronary syndromes.
Question: 701
Which of the following is an example of a primary immunodeficiency disorder?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Asthma
C. HIV/AIDS
D. Common variable immunodeficiency
Answer: D
Explanation: Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is an example of a primary immunodeficiency disorder. CVID is a group of disorders characterized by low levels of functional antibodies, leading to an increased susceptibility to infections. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease, not a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and constriction. HIV/AIDS is an acquired immunodeficiency syndrome caused by the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Question: 702
A patient is admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). The nurse understands that the administration of which medication is considered a standard treatment for ADHF?
A. Digoxin
B. Dopamine
C. Furosemide
D. Warfarin
Answer: C
Explanation: Furosemide is considered a standard treatment for acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body and alleviate symptoms of fluid overload in ADHF. Digoxin is used in the management of heart failure but is not specifically indicated for ADHF. Dopamine is a vasopressor used in certain cases of low blood pressure or cardiac output but is not a standard treatment for ADHF. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots and is not specific to ADHF treatment.
Question: 703
A patient with a known peanut allergy accidentally ingests peanuts and develops symptoms of an allergic reaction. Which of the following medications
is the most appropriate initial treatment for an anaphylactic reaction?
A. Epinephrine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Prednisone
D. Albuterol
Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Epinephrine. Epinephrine is the most appropriate initial treatment for an anaphylactic reaction, which is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. Epinephrine acts rapidly to reverse the symptoms of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, opening airways, and reducing immune system response. Options B (diphenhydramine), C (prednisone), and D (albuterol) may have a role in managing certain aspects of an allergic reaction, but they are not the first-line treatment and should not replace epinephrine.
Question: 704
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Regular physical exercise
B. Smoking cessation
C. Obesity
D. Low-dose aspirin use
Answer: C
Explanation: Obesity is a risk factor for the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Obesity contributes to venous stasis (slow blood flow) and an increased risk of blood clot formation in the deep veins, particularly in the lower extremities. Regular physical exercise actually reduces the risk of DVT by promoting blood flow. Smoking cessation is beneficial for overall health but does not directly impact DVT risk. Low-dose aspirin use is primarily associated with reducing the risk of arterial thrombosis (clot formation in arteries) rather than DVT.
Question: 705
The nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely during furosemide therapy?
A. Serum sodium levels
B. Serum potassium levels
C. Serum calcium levels
D. Serum creatinine levels
Answer: B
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the patient's serum potassium levels while on furosemide therapy.
Question: 706
A patient with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which of the following is an important nursing consideration when administering ACE inhibitors?
A. Monitoring serum potassium levels
B. Administering the medication with meals
C. Ensuring adequate fluid intake
D. Monitoring blood glucose levels
Answer: A
Explanation: An important nursing consideration when administering ACE inhibitors is monitoring serum potassium levels. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. Regular monitoring of potassium levels helps prevent complications related to electrolyte imbalances. ACE inhibitors are commonly administered on an empty stomach, rather than with meals. Ensuring adequate fluid intake is important for patients taking diuretics but is not specific to ACE inhibitors. Monitoring blood glucose levels is more relevant to other medication classes, such as certain antihypertensive agents or medications for diabetes management.
Question: 707
A patient presents with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). Which of the following signs or symptoms is most indicative of fluid overload?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hypotension
C. Bradycardia
D. Dry mucous membranes
Answer: A Explanation: Peripheral edema is the sign or symptom most indicative of fluid overload in a patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). Fluid overload occurs when there is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the body, leading to edema formation. Hypotension and bradycardia may be present in some cases of ADHF, but they are not specific to fluid overload. Dry mucous membranes are more commonly associated with dehydration rather than fluid overload.
Question: 708
The nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected stroke. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of an acute ischemic stroke?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B. Computed tomography (CT) scan
C. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
D. Lumbar puncture
Answer: B
Explanation: A computed tomography (CT) scan is the most commonly used diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis of an acute ischemic stroke.

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